Following the recent approval of 100 MBBS seats at each of three more schools in Jangaon, Vikarabad, and Bhupalpally by the National Medical Commission (NMC), Telangana is scheduled to have six new government medical institutions opening MBBS classes in the academic year 2023–2024. One medical college each district would help Telangana achieve its goal of becoming “Arogya Telangana,” according to the state’s health minister, T Harish Rao, who posted the information on Twitter.

According to the minister, the approval procedure for the Nirmal, Karimnagar, and Sircilla Medical Colleges is nearly complete. With the addition of these nine new colleges, Telangana will have a total of 26 medical colleges, offering 3,690 MBBS seats. When compared to the 2014–15 academic year, when the state only possessed 2,950 MBBS seats and 1,183 PG seats, this is a huge growth.

For the academic year 2023–2024, the NMC had previously approved two additional medical colleges in Telangana’s Kamareddy and Komaram Bheem Asifabad districts, each with 100 MBBS seats. It is anticipated that the opening of these new medical colleges will improve rural communities’ access to healthcare and medical education.

The NMC has given the go-ahead for an additional 100 MBBS seats at the Government Medical College in Khammam for the academic year 2023–2024 in addition to the three newly recognised medical colleges. The acceptance of these additional seats would aid in addressing the state’s shortfall of healthcare professionals, which currently stands at 7,090 MBBS seats and 2,548 PG seats.

Telangana’s initiatives to increase the number of medical schools and seats reflect its dedication to enhancing the quality of healthcare for its residents. More students will be able to pursue a career in healthcare thanks to the opening of these new medical colleges, and more people will have access to high-quality healthcare.

The northern Indian state of Nagaland is getting ready to launch its first medical school since becoming a state in 1963. The Nagaland Institute of Medical Sciences & Research (NIMSR), a division of Nagaland University, has been given permission by the National Medical Commission (NMC), the supreme medical authority in India, to open 100 MBBS seats in the academic year 2023–2024.

The NMC’s Medical Assessment & Rating Board (NMC, MARB) approved the 100 MBBS seats for the medical college on Tuesday, according to P Paiwang Konyak, Minister for Health and Family Welfare Department, who made the announcement during a joint news conference held at the medical college’s location in Kohima. The decision marks a key turning point for medical education in the state of Nagaland. The medical college has long been a dream of the people of Nagaland.

In addition, Konyak said the department would send a letter of acceptance to the NMC. The agency anticipates receiving a “Letter of Permission” from the MARB for the 100 medical seats within a week. The college’s civil construction is already complete, and the medical college’s academic year is scheduled to start in June or July 2023.

The remaining 15 of the 100 seats would be open to candidates from other states, with 85 of the seats reserved for students from Nagaland. The state has attracted the brightest professors from throughout the nation, and the hiring process for the medical college’s personnel is already under way.

Before approving, the NMC’s MARB considered a number of aspects, including the availability of infrastructure facilities including labs, libraries, dormitories, and hospitals as well as the qualifications and publications of the professors. On March 27, 2023, the board conducted a physical verification surprise assessment to determine the readiness of the college.

According to NMC standards, the NIMSR will seek to correct any problems by May 31, 2023. For the purpose of obtaining the Letter of Permission to start raising the number of seats for the academic year 2023–2024, it has been requested of the state that it supply the appropriate undertakings and crucial documents.

The opening of a medical college in Nagaland is anticipated to improve the state’s healthcare delivery system, which has frequently struggled with a physician shortage. The people of Nagaland have hailed the decision and are hopeful that the institution would generate a new generation of medical experts who can benefit the state and the nation.

The Combined Medical Service Examination 2023, will recruit 1261 MBBS physicians, has been announced by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC). Applying is possible through the official website, upsconline.nic.in, till May 9, 2023. On July 16, 2023, the UPSC CMS 2023 will be administered.

There are 584 general duty medical officer positions in the Category-l Central Health Service Medical Officer Grade, 300 assistant divisional medical officer positions with the railway, 1 general duty medical officer position with the NDMS, and 376 general duty medical officer positions with the Delhi Municipal Council.

Candidates must have completed the MBBS programme and hold an MBBS degree in addition to having passed the course’s written and practical exams. Also eligible to apply are those who will be taking the final MBBS exam.

As on August 1, 2023, the candidate’s age should not be more than 32. applicants from the SC and ST categories would receive a five-year exemption, while applicants from the OBC category will receive a three-year relaxation. The candidate’s birthdate must be earlier than August 2, 1991.

A written test for 500 points and an interview for 100 points are both part of the selection procedure. There will be two papers in the written test, each for 250 points and duration is two hours to complete. Those applicants who pass the written exam will be contacted for an interview.

There is no application fee for SC, ST, or Divyang candidates, but there is a fee of Rs. 200 for general and OBC applicants.

Each year, the UPSC CMS Examination is held to find doctors for positions in the railroads, hospitals, and municipalities, among other government agencies.

The Joint Entrance Examination (JEE) Main 2023 Session 2 was administered in computer-based test (CBT) format on several dates in April 2023 by the National Testing Agency (NTA). The NTA has now posted the question papers with recorded answers for Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech.), Paper 2A (B.Arch. ), and Paper 2B (B. Planning) on their official website  https://nta.ac.in/ for applicants to contest.

The website’s Annexure 1 outlines the steps for contesting the Answer Key. Candidates may contest the Answer Key by paying a non-refundable processing fee of Rs. 200/- (Rupees Two Hundred only) for each question they wish to contest. The answer key challenge will run from April 19 to April 21, 2023 (up to 5:00 PM).

Candidates have until April 21, 2023 (up to 5:00 PM) to pay the processing fee via debit card, credit card, or net banking. No challenge will be considered if the processing fee has not been received. It is significant to remember that no other method of payment will be accepted for the challenge fee.

A group of subject matter experts will confirm the validity of each challenge put up by the candidates. If a candidate’s challenge is determined to be accurate, the Answer Key will be updated and applied to each candidate’s response appropriately. The revised Final Answer Key will serve as the basis for preparing and announcing the results. No individual candidate will be told whether or not their challenge was accepted. After the challenge, the Experts will decide on a final Key. After April 21, 2023 (05:00 PM), no challenges will be entertained.

Candidates who have questions about JEE (Main) – 2023 may call 011-40759000 or send an email to [email protected].

Before contesting the answer key, candidates are urged to carefully review the provisional answer keys and the question papers with recorded responses. They should make sure that their objections to the Answer Key are legitimate and that they adhere to the rules for doing so. Candidates must also pay the processing fee within the allotted period and keep in mind the deadline for the Answer Key challenge.

For applicants to undergraduate engineering and architecture programmes at various institutions and universities throughout India, the JEE (Main) exam is an important entrance exam. To prevent any confusion or trouble, it is crucial for candidates to be informed about the most recent exam-related news and to adhere to the NTA’s rules.

Through a public notice published on April 19, 2023, the National Testing Agency (NTA) has announced the examination date and schedule for the Common Management Admission Test (CMAT-2023). For admission to management programmes in the nation, the CMAT is a national entrance exam. Through the exam, AICTE affiliated/participating colleges can choose graduate students who are qualified for admission to management programmes at affiliated institutions.

The CMAT-2023 test details

May 4, 2023, two shifts, as per the announcement.

Shift 1 will run from 9:00 AM to 12:00 NOON.

Shift 2 will run from 02:30 PM to 05:30 PM 

Candidates who have submitted applications for the CMAT-2023 exam are recommended to routinely check the NTA websites, https://nta.ac.in/ and https://cmat.nta.nic.in/, for the most recent information. 

Candidates can contact the NTA Help Desk at 011 40759000 for any questions or clarifications or send an email to [email protected].

It is advised that applicants prepare thoroughly for the test and utilize this opportunity to review their abilities and knowledge. To familiarize themselves with the exam format and level of difficulty, they should use this chance to review their course material and work through sample questions from prior years.

Candidates should make sure they have all the resources and documents needed for the exam day as the day of the exam draws closer, such as the admission card, ID evidence, etc. To avoid any last-minute misunderstanding or bother, they should also become familiar with the exam guidelines.

Applicants taking the CMAT-2023 exam should make the most of this opportunity and study hard to get high scores. To avoid any last-minute inconveniences, they should keep up with the most recent announcements and have all the relevant documentation on hand.

The Masters of Dental Surgery (MDS) in Orthodontics & Dentofacial Orthopaedics is a post-graduate course for people who have earned their Bachelor of Dental Surgery (BDS) or an equivalent degree recognised by the Dental Council of India and want to work as dentists in India or abroad. The study of oral abnormalities, malocclusion, and the harmonisation of the structures involved to enable appropriate operation of dental mechanisms are the main topics of the course. The three-year programme is pursued full-time at numerous authorised universities and hospitals across the nation.

Saveetha Institute of Medical and Technical Sciences in Chennai, Tamil Nadu; Dr. D. Y. Patil Vidyapeeth in Pune, Maharashtra; Maulana Azad Institute of Dental Sciences in New Delhi; and many more are top certified institutions/hospitals provide this programme.

The National Board of Examinations in Medical Science (NBEMS) administers the NEET-MDS Entrance Exam, which is required for admission to this programme. Counselling is then provided based on the exam results by the DGHS/DCI/State Authorities. To give MDS admission, however, a few of institutions, including AIIMS, hold a university-level entrance exam.

From 20,000 to 25 lakhs of rupees per year, depending on the recognised institute or hospital, are the costs associated with pursuing an MDS. After completing the school, doctors have two options: they can find employment or enrol in fellowship programmes approved by DCI. Candidates may choose to open their own dental practise or serve as dentists in public or private hospitals, nursing homes, or both. Depending on expertise, the typical starting compensation ranges from Rs. 6.5 lakhs to Rs. 24 lakhs annually.

What is MDS? 

After earning their Bachelor of Dental Surgery (BDS) degree, dentists can enrol in a post-graduate programme called MDS, which stands for Master of Dental Surgery. The three-year MDS programme focuses on a number of specialisations in relation to the tissues of the jaw, face, and teeth. The Dental Council of India (DCI) has granted recognition to the programme, which offers specialisations in prosthodontics, crown and bridge, conservative dentistry, endodontics, periodontics, orthodontics, dentofacial orthopaedics, oral and maxillofacial surgery, oral and maxillofacial pathology, oral microbiology, oral medicine & radiology, paediatric dentistry, preventive dentistry, and public health dentistry.

The MDS programme provides dentists with the knowledge and abilities they need to diagnose and treat dental-related diseases and issues, such as dental implants, artificial replacements, diseases and surgeries involving the jaw and gums, correction of crooked or misaligned teeth and the jaw, treatment of dental tissues, diagnosis and operations for facial diseases, and cosmetic procedures. Additionally, the necessary training completed during undergrad enables dentists to identify the community’s health requirements.

Following successful completion of the MDS programme, dentists may find employment in public or private hospitals, nursing homes, or open their own dental practise. Dentists should constantly attend conferences and workshops to expand their knowledge in order to stay abreast of the most recent developments in the area of dentistry.

Course Highlights

The following are some of the highlights of the orthodontics and dentofacial orthopaedics master’s programme courses:

Eligibility Criteria

The following requirements must be satisfied in order to qualify for the Master of Dental Surgery (MDS) programme:

• Candidates must possess a recognised Bachelor of Dental Surgery (BDS) degree from an Indian university or dental college that is accredited under Section 10(2) of the Dentists Act, 1948, or a comparable degree that has been approved by the Dental Council of India.
• Candidates with a two-year PG diploma in a specific speciality that has been approved by the Dental Council of India are eligible to apply for an MDS in that specialisation. The MDS course will last for two years, and the syllabus will follow the requirements of the 

relevant university.

SELECTION OF POSTGRADUATE STUDENTS: 

(1) Academic merit alone shall be used to select students for postgraduate dentistry courses (MDS). 

(2) For both P.G. Diploma and MDS degree courses, the university/institution may use any one of the following criteria to determine academic merit:

1. Based on merit as determined by a competitive test held by the State Government, the competent authority designated by the State Government, or the University/group of Universities in the same state; 
2. Based on merit as determined by a centralised competitive test held at the national level; or 
3. Based on the individual cumulative performance at the first, second, third, and final B.D.S. examinations,or
4. Combination of (1) and (2): (3) 

• Provided that the minimum percentage of marks required for admission to postgraduate dental courses shall be 50% for general category candidates and 40% for candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, regardless of whether the entrance exam for Postgraduate admissions is held by a State Government, a university, or any other authorised examining body.
• Furthermore, it is provided that in non-governmental institutions, the competent authority will fill 50% of all seats, and the remaining 50% will be filled on the basis of merit by the institution’s administration. 

Admission Process: 

Candidates must complete a number of processes in order to be admitted to the Masters of Dental Surgery (MDS) programme. The following is the MDS admissions procedure:

1. The National Board of Examinations (NBE) administers the National Eligibility cum Entrance Test for MDS (NEET-MDS), a national-level postgraduate entrance exam, to candidates seeking admission to MDS programmes at accredited dental colleges, deemed universities, and institutions. 
2. The Dental Council of India (DCI) in cooperation with the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MOHFW) establishes the requirements for NEET MDS eligibility. The following are the prerequisites for taking the NEET MDS exam:

• Candidates must meet the NEET MDS eligibility requirements for 2023 by holding a BDS degree from an accredited university.
• before July 31, 2023, a temporary or permanent registration with the State Dental Council (SDC) or DCI.
• It is required that candidates for admission complete a one-year mandatory rotatory internship by July 31 of the academic year in which they are applying.

Common Counselling: NEET MDS 2023 for the admission process

• NEET MDS 2023 admissions counselling for 50% MCC manages the All India Quota, deemed/central university, ESIC, and AFMC seats. The state agency in charge of counselling for seats in government dentistry colleges is accountable for Jammu and Kashmir because the state does not participate in the central pool quota.
• For All India Quota seats, there are three rounds of seat allocation, and a mop-up round will be held for deemed, central, and ESIC colleges. Aspirants must achieve the minimal cut-off percentile or higher in order to participate in NEET MDS 2023 counselling.
• By registering and indicating their preferences for institutions and courses, qualified candidates can take part in the counselling process. Admission to the MDS programme is determined by the decision made, NEET MDS score, availability of seats in the specific college, reservation requirements, and other variables.
• The process of allocating seats for the 50% state quota and seats in private dentistry institutions is handled by the state counselling committee, which is chosen by the state government. The counselling procedure will either be managed offline or online by the relevant regulatory organisations.
• Qualified candidates must meet particular eligibility requirements for domicile, age, nationality, and other factors as set forth by the state counselling authorities in order to apply for state MDS admissions. The cost of MDS varies from accredited institute/hospital to accredited institute/hospital. The average fee for private institutions is from Rs. 20,000 to Rs. 25 lakhs per year, whereas it is typically lower for government institutions and higher for private institutions.

Institutions with Masters in Dental Surgery programmes

In India, there are numerous authorised institutions and hospitals that provide programmes for pursuing an MDS. The following authorised institutions/hospitals are offering courses for the academic year 2022–2023, according to the Dental Council of India website.

Career Options 

After completing MDS, candidates will get employment opportunities in Government as well as in the Private sector. They can apply for higher studies through research courses or can apply in the government or private sector for a job.

 In the Government sector, candidates have various options to choose from which include: 

• Join State Government Dental Jobs as a Dental Surgeon. 
• Join the Indian Navy as a Dental Officer. 
• Join the Indian Railways as a Dentist. 
• Join as Territorial Officer in Indian Army. 
• Join the National Rural Health Mission or NRHM. 
• Join through UPSC vacancy. 
• Join ESIC or Employees State Insurance Corporation. 
• Join ECHS or Ex-Servicemen Contributory Health Scheme.

While in the Private sector, the options include: 

• Clinical practice- start your own clinic, work in a clinic associated with a hospital, or work in private clinics. 
• They can join Research organizations. 
• Join universities/colleges as lecturers. 

Courses After MDS in Orthodontics & Dentofacial Orthopedics 

Master of Dental Surgery is a postgraduate course that can be pursued after finishing high school. After pursuing BDS, a candidate could pursue the following course programs, where MDS is a feeder qualification. 

These include: • Ph.D. in Orthodontics. • Ph.D. in Dental Sciences.

The State of Maharashtra has been ordered by the Bombay High Court to submit all papers relating to the College of Physicians and Surgeons (CPS) courses admission process. The instruction was given during a hearing over the state’s medical education department’s show-cause notice. Medical professionals can enrol in fellowship, diploma, and certificate programmes at CPS Mumbai, an independent organisation founded in 1912.

There are large disparities in the standards of institutions offering CPS accredited degrees, which is what gave rise to the controversy surrounding CPS admissions in Maharashtra. In a letter to the Union Health Ministry, the medical education department of Maharashtra requested advice on whether counselling could be held for approximately 1,100 CPS seats. According to the department, some institutes exhibited “severe deficiencies” as a result of the Maharashtra Medical Council’s inspection from the previous year.

Nitin Gadkari, a union minister, backed the Association of CPS Affiliated Institutes and voiced concern that, in the event of any additional delays in the admissions process for 2022, the State would lose 1,100 CPS seats. The CPS management was served a show-cause notice by the State Medical Education Department, which required an explanation of the inadequacies discovered in its affiliated institutes by March 21.

In order to recommence the admissions process, CPS filed a petition with the Bombay HC bench. Senior Advocate Ravi Kadam, the attorney for CPS, said that the notice had been given based on a report from the administrator, who had been appointed after the Maharashtra Medical Council’s tenure ended in August 2022. The appointment of the aforementioned administrator was contested by CPS, and it was alleged that the report was consequently unlawful.

The dispute has been set for further hearing on April 26, 2023, and the court has ordered the State to disclose all records relating to the admissions procedure for CPS courses. The judge commanded, “You (state) will make sure that they receive every report and recommendation. They will receive every paper fragment from this lady (Joshi).”

The State was represented by Senior Advocate Milind Sathe, who argued that the delay in admissions was due to the government’s desire to make sure the colleges had the appropriate facilities, teachers, and personnel. The court mandated that no counselling be provided before April 25.

The Common University Entrance Test for Postgraduate Programmes, or CUET-PG, registration date has been extended, according to the National Testing Agency (NTA). Candidates can now register for the exam through the official website cuet.nta.nic.in until 9:50 pm on May 5, 2023, according to the UGC Chairman’s most recent announcement.

Additionally, from May 6 until May 8, 2023, the CUET-PG correction window will be active, giving candidates the chance to change or eliminate the exams or subjects they had originally chosen. Additionally, students may add extra subjects to their applications with the condition that they pay an additional fee (if applicable).

Many universities joined the CUET-PG exam after the registration process began, prompting the decision to extend the registration deadline. This extension will provide candidates more time to select courses and programmes from the universities that have just been added. It is significant to remember that once payments have been paid, they are non-refundable.

The release date for the admit card and the results will be revealed on the official website at a later time. Keep an eye on the official website for any additional developments on the matter.

On April 20, 2023, the West Bengal Joint Entrance Examinations Board (WBJEEB) is scheduled to distribute the WBJEE 2023 Admit Card. The WBJEE exam hall ticket can be downloaded from the official website at wbjeeb.nic.in by applicants who have submitted applications. Two shifts of the WBJEE test are scheduled for April 30, 2023. Up until the exam day, the hall ticket will be accessible for download.

Below you can find the details about WBJEE 2023 admit card:

• On April 20, 2023, the WBJEEB website will publish the 2023 WBJEE Admit Card.
• By entering their application number and password on the official website, candidates can download their hall tickets.
• From April 20 to April 30, 2023, the WBJEE 2023 Admit Card will be accessible on the official website.
• There will be two shifts for the WBJEE 2023 exam: the first will run from 11:00 AM to 1:00 PM, and the second from 2:00 PM to 4:00 PM.
• Candidates should go to the official website at wbjeeb.nic.in to download the hall ticket.
• Click the link for the WBJEE 2023 admit card on the homepage.
• Open a new tab and log in with your credentials.
• On the screen, the JEE hall ticket will appear.
• Check the name, roll number, exam date, and exam centre that are all listed on the admit card.
• Download the admit card and print it off for your records.

The three areas of the WBJEE 2023 exam—Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics—will each have 155 questions. Physics and Chemistry will each have 40 problems, while Mathematics will have 75. On the day of the exam, candidates are recommended to bring their hall ticket with them to the testing location.

Students can download the hall ticket from the WBJEEB official website up till the day of the exam when the WBJEE 2023 Admit Card is announced tomorrow, April 20, 2023. To guarantee that all the information on the admit card is accurate, candidates should follow the instructions above while downloading their hall ticket.

For admission to undergraduate architecture programmes, the Council of Architecture (CoA) administers the National Aptitude Test in Architecture (NATA), a very competitive national entrance exam. On April 18, 2023, the NATA Test 1 admit card were released, and applicants can access it by downloading it from the nata.in website.

On April 21, 2023, NATA Test 1 will be administered in two shifts. While the afternoon shift will begin at 2.30 pm and end at 5.30 pm, the morning shift will begin at 10 am and end at 1 pm. The exam will include 125 questions and be worth 200 points. Candidates will have three hours to finish the exam.

Candidates must carefully review the information on the admit card regarding the time and location of their exams. On April 30, 2023, the NATA Test 1 results are anticipated to be released. Candidates can view their results on the official website.

Candidates who have registered for Test 1 can use the official website to download their admission card. However, registration for NATA Tests 2 and 3 is currently open for candidates who were unable to register for Test 1. The test date is May 28, 2023, and registration for Test 2 closes on May 13, 2023. Similar to Test 2, registration for Test 3 closes on June 24, 2023, and the test is scheduled for July 9.

Follow the instructions below to download the NATA Test 1 admit card: 

• go to the official website https://nata.in/
• click on the link for NATA Admit Card for Test 1
• enter your login information, including your application number and password, and the admit card will appear on the screen. The admit card contains information about the candidate, including name, roll number, exam date, and location. 
• The candidate must review all of the information on the admit card, 
• print out the admit card, and keep it secure so they may bring it to the testing location on the exam day.

The NATA exam is important for applicants looking to enrol in undergraduate architecture programmes. It’s critical to monitor the exam schedule and stay current with the latest information available on the official website.