The Masters of Dental Surgery (MDS) in Orthodontics & Dentofacial Orthopaedics is a post-graduate course for people who have earned their Bachelor of Dental Surgery (BDS) or an equivalent degree recognised by the Dental Council of India and want to work as dentists in India or abroad. The study of oral abnormalities, malocclusion, and the harmonisation of the structures involved to enable appropriate operation of dental mechanisms are the main topics of the course. The three-year programme is pursued full-time at numerous authorised universities and hospitals across the nation.

Saveetha Institute of Medical and Technical Sciences in Chennai, Tamil Nadu; Dr. D. Y. Patil Vidyapeeth in Pune, Maharashtra; Maulana Azad Institute of Dental Sciences in New Delhi; and many more are top certified institutions/hospitals provide this programme.

The National Board of Examinations in Medical Science (NBEMS) administers the NEET-MDS Entrance Exam, which is required for admission to this programme. Counselling is then provided based on the exam results by the DGHS/DCI/State Authorities. To give MDS admission, however, a few of institutions, including AIIMS, hold a university-level entrance exam.

From 20,000 to 25 lakhs of rupees per year, depending on the recognised institute or hospital, are the costs associated with pursuing an MDS. After completing the school, doctors have two options: they can find employment or enrol in fellowship programmes approved by DCI. Candidates may choose to open their own dental practise or serve as dentists in public or private hospitals, nursing homes, or both. Depending on expertise, the typical starting compensation ranges from Rs. 6.5 lakhs to Rs. 24 lakhs annually.

What is MDS? 

After earning their Bachelor of Dental Surgery (BDS) degree, dentists can enrol in a post-graduate programme called MDS, which stands for Master of Dental Surgery. The three-year MDS programme focuses on a number of specialisations in relation to the tissues of the jaw, face, and teeth. The Dental Council of India (DCI) has granted recognition to the programme, which offers specialisations in prosthodontics, crown and bridge, conservative dentistry, endodontics, periodontics, orthodontics, dentofacial orthopaedics, oral and maxillofacial surgery, oral and maxillofacial pathology, oral microbiology, oral medicine & radiology, paediatric dentistry, preventive dentistry, and public health dentistry.

The MDS programme provides dentists with the knowledge and abilities they need to diagnose and treat dental-related diseases and issues, such as dental implants, artificial replacements, diseases and surgeries involving the jaw and gums, correction of crooked or misaligned teeth and the jaw, treatment of dental tissues, diagnosis and operations for facial diseases, and cosmetic procedures. Additionally, the necessary training completed during undergrad enables dentists to identify the community’s health requirements.

Following successful completion of the MDS programme, dentists may find employment in public or private hospitals, nursing homes, or open their own dental practise. Dentists should constantly attend conferences and workshops to expand their knowledge in order to stay abreast of the most recent developments in the area of dentistry.

Course Highlights

The following are some of the highlights of the orthodontics and dentofacial orthopaedics master’s programme courses:

Eligibility Criteria

The following requirements must be satisfied in order to qualify for the Master of Dental Surgery (MDS) programme:

• Candidates must possess a recognised Bachelor of Dental Surgery (BDS) degree from an Indian university or dental college that is accredited under Section 10(2) of the Dentists Act, 1948, or a comparable degree that has been approved by the Dental Council of India.
• Candidates with a two-year PG diploma in a specific speciality that has been approved by the Dental Council of India are eligible to apply for an MDS in that specialisation. The MDS course will last for two years, and the syllabus will follow the requirements of the 

relevant university.

SELECTION OF POSTGRADUATE STUDENTS: 

(1) Academic merit alone shall be used to select students for postgraduate dentistry courses (MDS). 

(2) For both P.G. Diploma and MDS degree courses, the university/institution may use any one of the following criteria to determine academic merit:

1. Based on merit as determined by a competitive test held by the State Government, the competent authority designated by the State Government, or the University/group of Universities in the same state; 
2. Based on merit as determined by a centralised competitive test held at the national level; or 
3. Based on the individual cumulative performance at the first, second, third, and final B.D.S. examinations,or
4. Combination of (1) and (2): (3) 

• Provided that the minimum percentage of marks required for admission to postgraduate dental courses shall be 50% for general category candidates and 40% for candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, regardless of whether the entrance exam for Postgraduate admissions is held by a State Government, a university, or any other authorised examining body.
• Furthermore, it is provided that in non-governmental institutions, the competent authority will fill 50% of all seats, and the remaining 50% will be filled on the basis of merit by the institution’s administration. 

Admission Process: 

Candidates must complete a number of processes in order to be admitted to the Masters of Dental Surgery (MDS) programme. The following is the MDS admissions procedure:

1. The National Board of Examinations (NBE) administers the National Eligibility cum Entrance Test for MDS (NEET-MDS), a national-level postgraduate entrance exam, to candidates seeking admission to MDS programmes at accredited dental colleges, deemed universities, and institutions. 
2. The Dental Council of India (DCI) in cooperation with the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MOHFW) establishes the requirements for NEET MDS eligibility. The following are the prerequisites for taking the NEET MDS exam:

• Candidates must meet the NEET MDS eligibility requirements for 2023 by holding a BDS degree from an accredited university.
• before July 31, 2023, a temporary or permanent registration with the State Dental Council (SDC) or DCI.
• It is required that candidates for admission complete a one-year mandatory rotatory internship by July 31 of the academic year in which they are applying.

Common Counselling: NEET MDS 2023 for the admission process

• NEET MDS 2023 admissions counselling for 50% MCC manages the All India Quota, deemed/central university, ESIC, and AFMC seats. The state agency in charge of counselling for seats in government dentistry colleges is accountable for Jammu and Kashmir because the state does not participate in the central pool quota.
• For All India Quota seats, there are three rounds of seat allocation, and a mop-up round will be held for deemed, central, and ESIC colleges. Aspirants must achieve the minimal cut-off percentile or higher in order to participate in NEET MDS 2023 counselling.
• By registering and indicating their preferences for institutions and courses, qualified candidates can take part in the counselling process. Admission to the MDS programme is determined by the decision made, NEET MDS score, availability of seats in the specific college, reservation requirements, and other variables.
• The process of allocating seats for the 50% state quota and seats in private dentistry institutions is handled by the state counselling committee, which is chosen by the state government. The counselling procedure will either be managed offline or online by the relevant regulatory organisations.
• Qualified candidates must meet particular eligibility requirements for domicile, age, nationality, and other factors as set forth by the state counselling authorities in order to apply for state MDS admissions. The cost of MDS varies from accredited institute/hospital to accredited institute/hospital. The average fee for private institutions is from Rs. 20,000 to Rs. 25 lakhs per year, whereas it is typically lower for government institutions and higher for private institutions.

Institutions with Masters in Dental Surgery programmes

In India, there are numerous authorised institutions and hospitals that provide programmes for pursuing an MDS. The following authorised institutions/hospitals are offering courses for the academic year 2022–2023, according to the Dental Council of India website.

Career Options 

After completing MDS, candidates will get employment opportunities in Government as well as in the Private sector. They can apply for higher studies through research courses or can apply in the government or private sector for a job.

 In the Government sector, candidates have various options to choose from which include: 

• Join State Government Dental Jobs as a Dental Surgeon. 
• Join the Indian Navy as a Dental Officer. 
• Join the Indian Railways as a Dentist. 
• Join as Territorial Officer in Indian Army. 
• Join the National Rural Health Mission or NRHM. 
• Join through UPSC vacancy. 
• Join ESIC or Employees State Insurance Corporation. 
• Join ECHS or Ex-Servicemen Contributory Health Scheme.

While in the Private sector, the options include: 

• Clinical practice- start your own clinic, work in a clinic associated with a hospital, or work in private clinics. 
• They can join Research organizations. 
• Join universities/colleges as lecturers. 

Courses After MDS in Orthodontics & Dentofacial Orthopedics 

Master of Dental Surgery is a postgraduate course that can be pursued after finishing high school. After pursuing BDS, a candidate could pursue the following course programs, where MDS is a feeder qualification. 

These include: • Ph.D. in Orthodontics. • Ph.D. in Dental Sciences.

The State of Maharashtra has been ordered by the Bombay High Court to submit all papers relating to the College of Physicians and Surgeons (CPS) courses admission process. The instruction was given during a hearing over the state’s medical education department’s show-cause notice. Medical professionals can enrol in fellowship, diploma, and certificate programmes at CPS Mumbai, an independent organisation founded in 1912.

There are large disparities in the standards of institutions offering CPS accredited degrees, which is what gave rise to the controversy surrounding CPS admissions in Maharashtra. In a letter to the Union Health Ministry, the medical education department of Maharashtra requested advice on whether counselling could be held for approximately 1,100 CPS seats. According to the department, some institutes exhibited “severe deficiencies” as a result of the Maharashtra Medical Council’s inspection from the previous year.

Nitin Gadkari, a union minister, backed the Association of CPS Affiliated Institutes and voiced concern that, in the event of any additional delays in the admissions process for 2022, the State would lose 1,100 CPS seats. The CPS management was served a show-cause notice by the State Medical Education Department, which required an explanation of the inadequacies discovered in its affiliated institutes by March 21.

In order to recommence the admissions process, CPS filed a petition with the Bombay HC bench. Senior Advocate Ravi Kadam, the attorney for CPS, said that the notice had been given based on a report from the administrator, who had been appointed after the Maharashtra Medical Council’s tenure ended in August 2022. The appointment of the aforementioned administrator was contested by CPS, and it was alleged that the report was consequently unlawful.

The dispute has been set for further hearing on April 26, 2023, and the court has ordered the State to disclose all records relating to the admissions procedure for CPS courses. The judge commanded, “You (state) will make sure that they receive every report and recommendation. They will receive every paper fragment from this lady (Joshi).”

The State was represented by Senior Advocate Milind Sathe, who argued that the delay in admissions was due to the government’s desire to make sure the colleges had the appropriate facilities, teachers, and personnel. The court mandated that no counselling be provided before April 25.

The Common University Entrance Test for Postgraduate Programmes, or CUET-PG, registration date has been extended, according to the National Testing Agency (NTA). Candidates can now register for the exam through the official website cuet.nta.nic.in until 9:50 pm on May 5, 2023, according to the UGC Chairman’s most recent announcement.

Additionally, from May 6 until May 8, 2023, the CUET-PG correction window will be active, giving candidates the chance to change or eliminate the exams or subjects they had originally chosen. Additionally, students may add extra subjects to their applications with the condition that they pay an additional fee (if applicable).

Many universities joined the CUET-PG exam after the registration process began, prompting the decision to extend the registration deadline. This extension will provide candidates more time to select courses and programmes from the universities that have just been added. It is significant to remember that once payments have been paid, they are non-refundable.

The release date for the admit card and the results will be revealed on the official website at a later time. Keep an eye on the official website for any additional developments on the matter.

On April 20, 2023, the West Bengal Joint Entrance Examinations Board (WBJEEB) is scheduled to distribute the WBJEE 2023 Admit Card. The WBJEE exam hall ticket can be downloaded from the official website at wbjeeb.nic.in by applicants who have submitted applications. Two shifts of the WBJEE test are scheduled for April 30, 2023. Up until the exam day, the hall ticket will be accessible for download.

Below you can find the details about WBJEE 2023 admit card:

• On April 20, 2023, the WBJEEB website will publish the 2023 WBJEE Admit Card.
• By entering their application number and password on the official website, candidates can download their hall tickets.
• From April 20 to April 30, 2023, the WBJEE 2023 Admit Card will be accessible on the official website.
• There will be two shifts for the WBJEE 2023 exam: the first will run from 11:00 AM to 1:00 PM, and the second from 2:00 PM to 4:00 PM.
• Candidates should go to the official website at wbjeeb.nic.in to download the hall ticket.
• Click the link for the WBJEE 2023 admit card on the homepage.
• Open a new tab and log in with your credentials.
• On the screen, the JEE hall ticket will appear.
• Check the name, roll number, exam date, and exam centre that are all listed on the admit card.
• Download the admit card and print it off for your records.

The three areas of the WBJEE 2023 exam—Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics—will each have 155 questions. Physics and Chemistry will each have 40 problems, while Mathematics will have 75. On the day of the exam, candidates are recommended to bring their hall ticket with them to the testing location.

Students can download the hall ticket from the WBJEEB official website up till the day of the exam when the WBJEE 2023 Admit Card is announced tomorrow, April 20, 2023. To guarantee that all the information on the admit card is accurate, candidates should follow the instructions above while downloading their hall ticket.

For admission to undergraduate architecture programmes, the Council of Architecture (CoA) administers the National Aptitude Test in Architecture (NATA), a very competitive national entrance exam. On April 18, 2023, the NATA Test 1 admit card were released, and applicants can access it by downloading it from the nata.in website.

On April 21, 2023, NATA Test 1 will be administered in two shifts. While the afternoon shift will begin at 2.30 pm and end at 5.30 pm, the morning shift will begin at 10 am and end at 1 pm. The exam will include 125 questions and be worth 200 points. Candidates will have three hours to finish the exam.

Candidates must carefully review the information on the admit card regarding the time and location of their exams. On April 30, 2023, the NATA Test 1 results are anticipated to be released. Candidates can view their results on the official website.

Candidates who have registered for Test 1 can use the official website to download their admission card. However, registration for NATA Tests 2 and 3 is currently open for candidates who were unable to register for Test 1. The test date is May 28, 2023, and registration for Test 2 closes on May 13, 2023. Similar to Test 2, registration for Test 3 closes on June 24, 2023, and the test is scheduled for July 9.

Follow the instructions below to download the NATA Test 1 admit card: 

• go to the official website https://nata.in/
• click on the link for NATA Admit Card for Test 1
• enter your login information, including your application number and password, and the admit card will appear on the screen. The admit card contains information about the candidate, including name, roll number, exam date, and location. 
• The candidate must review all of the information on the admit card, 
• print out the admit card, and keep it secure so they may bring it to the testing location on the exam day.

The NATA exam is important for applicants looking to enrol in undergraduate architecture programmes. It’s critical to monitor the exam schedule and stay current with the latest information available on the official website.

The Bombay High Court has ordered the College of Physicians and Surgeons (CPS) to receive all state government documents before it can respond to a show-cause notice issued by the medical education secretary Ashwini Joshi regarding alleged shortcomings in CPS-affiliated institutions. To give the CPS time to receive and review the materials, the hearing, which was initially planned for Tuesday, has been postponed to April 26.

The CPS, which provides post-graduate diploma and fellowship programmes, had contested a notice sent on March 14 asking them to demonstrate why their programmes shouldn’t be stricken from the Maharashtra Medical Council Act’s first schedule. Additionally, it asked the high court to approve the continuation of the admissions process, which had been

Based on a report from the administrator chosen after the term of the Maharashtra Medical Council expired in August 2022, the warning was issued. The administrator’s appointment was contested, hence his report was unlawful, according to CPS Senior Advocate Ravi Kadam. The entire plan, according to Kadam, is to eliminate us. The judges said that the state had to be given a chance to respond to the case. Kadam pleaded for immediate relief because the hearing was set for the following day, but Joshi refused to approve of counselling.

Milind Sathe, a senior state counsel, explained that the delay in admissions was due to the need for the government to guarantee that colleges had the essential facilities, teachers, and personnel. When the judges questioned if the whole record was included with the notice, Kadam said that a small number of papers were delivered on April 5 following the filing of a right to information request.

Regarding a previous incident, Kadam stated, “The high court has dealt with her conduct.” Additionally, he noted that the CPS has received favourable evaluations from two central committees, including one headed by cardiac surgeon Devi Shetty. According to Kadam, the administrator who wrote the report has no authority.

The justices disapproved of the state, arguing that the CPS must be given access to every material. “You (state) will make sure that they receive every report and recommendation. They will have every single shred of paper from this lady (Joshi),” stated Justice Patel. The CPS wants to begin counselling, Sathe retorted, but Justice Patel directed the CPS to hold off until April 25.

The state health department’s fee regulation council has set the cost for MBBS courses at five private medical institutions, which may be a relief to Bihar’s aspirant medical students. For the academic year 2021–2026, the revised price structure—which includes the tuition fee and the development charge—ranges from Rs 7.98 lakh to Rs 15.50 lakh.

It is crucial to remember that the mess fee, non-resident transportation price, and hostel fee will be determined by the institution’s rate submission to the decision-making committee. During the admissions period, the institutes must refund any additional funds they may have received for the previous academic session.

Radha Devi Jageshwari Medical College in Muzaffarpur will collect a price of Rs 7.98 lakh for each academic session, which includes Rs 6.94 lakh as tuition fee and Rs 1.04 lakh as development charge, according to the press release issued by the government. While Lord Buddha Koshi Medical College and Hospital in Saharsa will charge a total of Rs 12 lakh, Shri Narayan Medical Institute and Hospital at Bherdari in the Saharsa district will charge a total of Rs 13 lakh.

The cost for one academic session at Netaji Subhash Medical College and Hospital in Bihta will be Rs 15.50 lakh. In a similar vein, Madhubani Medical College would charge a total of Rs. 9.53 lakh.

The department said in a press release that Radha Devi Jageshwari Medical College in Muzaffarpur would collect a fee of Aspiring medical students in Bihar, who have been burdened by exorbitant tuition at private medical colleges, are anticipated to experience some relief as a result of the amended fee structure. The action will support the promotion of accessible and inexpensive medical education in the state.

It is crucial to remember that medical education is an integral component of the healthcare system, and that everyone should be able to access it and afford it. The government’s attempts to control tuition at private medical schools will significantly advance medical education equity and guarantee that students from all backgrounds have access to high-quality instruction.

The decision to fix the cost of the MBBS programme at five private medical colleges by the state health department’s fee regulating committee is a move in the right direction towards promoting accessible and reasonable medical education in Bihar. Thousands of prospective medical students in the state are anticipated to gain from the decision, which will guarantee their access to a high-quality education free from financial burdens.

Recently, the Indian Institute of Science Education and Research (IISER) in Bhopal opened its doors to prospective students interested in a future in science. The admissions procedure for the BS-MS Dual Degree and BS degree programmes at the institute is currently open, and it will close on May 25, 2023.

Candidates who meet the requirements can submit their applications online at iiseradmission.in, the official website. On June 17, the institute will administer the IISER Aptitude Test (IAT-2023), which will be given as a computer-based exam at locations all throughout India.

Eligibility 

• To apply through the KVPY, JEE (advanced), or IAT channels, candidates must be Indian citizens, PIOs, or OCIs. Only through the JEE (Advanced) channel may candidates apply for admission who are NOT Indian citizens, PIOs, or OCI.

• Candidates must have earned a passing grade in science in the Class XII (or equivalent) exam in 2022 or 2023 from a board that has been approved by the Council of Boards of School Education in India (COBSE).

• Candidates must have taken at least three of the following during their Class XII (or equivalent) exam: Biology, Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics.

• Candidates from the SC, ST, or PWD categories must have received at least a 55% overall grade or equivalent in their Class XII (or similar) test. Candidates from other categories must have obtained at least 60% overall or an equal grade in Class XII (or an equivalent test).

The IISER Aptitude Test (IAT)  Exam Details

• Exam will consist of 60 questions 
• the candidate’s aptitude in various areas of science, including mathematics, physics, and chemistry. 
• The exam duration will be three hours 
• Candidates who qualify for the exam will be shortlisted for the interview process.

Fees

Candidates from the general, EWS, and OBC-NCL categories must pay a cost of Rs 2,000 to apply for the IISER Aptitude Test (IAT), while applicants from the SC/ST, disabled, and registered Kashmiri immigrant categories must pay a fee of Rs 1,000. A fee of Rs 8,500 must be paid by foreign nationals who want to apply for the programme.

The five-year integrated BS-MS Dual Degree programme provided by IISER Bhopal includes undergraduate and graduate courses. The curriculum is created to offer a thorough education in science with an emphasis on research and innovation. Students who complete the three-year BS degree programme will have a solid scientific basis.

India’s foremost center for science education and research, IISER Bhopal has continuously been rated among the best universities in the world. The institute provides its students with cutting-edge amenities and tools, such as well-stocked labs, libraries, and research facilities.

Additionally, the institute gives its students the chance to take part in research projects and internships, which enable them to develop crucial experience and exposure in the fields of their choice. Employers and research institutions all around the world are vying for IISER Bhopal graduates.

Students who are enthusiastic about science and want to pursue a career in this sector could take advantage of the IISER Aptitude Test (IAT). IISER Bhopal is a great option for students who wish to establish a name for themselves in the scientific community because of its top-notch facilities, knowledgeable instructors, and extensive curriculum. So don’t miss this chance to apply if you’re interested in pursuing a career in science!

A detailed prospectus for the start of online registration for the Post-Doctoral Fellowship (PDF) and Post-Doctoral Certificate Course (PDCC) has just been released by the Jawaharlal Nehru Postgraduate Medical Education and Research Institute (JIPMER).

Detailed schedule –

Before beginning the online registration process, candidates are urged to read the prospectus to make sure all required fields are filled in. Under no circumstances will a request for the correction of an application error or a fee refund be taken into consideration.

Application procedures: 

• Online registration 
• Candidate information entry and document uploading 
• online payment
• The confirmation page 

Go to the institute’s website, www.jipmer.edu.in, and click the link “Application Link for PDF & PDC COURSES – July 2023.” The entire name submitted by the candidates in the application must match both their MD/MS/DNB/DM/M.Ch. Degree Certificate and their government-issued photo ID card (Aadhaar Card, Pan Card, Identity Card, Driver’s Licence, etc.). (Spelling and order must be similar – if it is not the same, the candidate is encouraged to fix it in the document listed above/documents before applying).

Candidates should carefully complete all fields. After the online application has been submitted, no requests to modify the information a candidate provided will be taken into account or entertained. The candidate details, scanned photo, and signature must all be uploaded before hitting the “submit button” to finish the online application submission procedure. 

Candidates are urged to save a copy of their completed application that includes all the required information. Let’s say that after paying the application cost, the candidate discovers an entry error they made in their application. In that situation, a fresh application must be made, and a new fee must be paid. The previous application will be automatically withdrawn. No written or email correspondence will be accepted in this regard

The right to receive a hall ticket does not automatically follow the completion of registration and payment. Applications that are incomplete or contain incorrect or inaccurate information may be rejected at any time. 

The candidate must use the below-mentioned online transactions to pay the application costs for each category. There won’t be any other forms of payment accepted. 

Fee Category: 

General (UR)/EWSs: Rs.1,600+ Transaction Charges as applicable

OBC: Rs.1,600+ Transaction Charges as applicable

SC/ST: Rs.1,200+ Transaction Charges as applicable

PwBD:  Not Subject to Application Fees

Post-Doctoral Fellowship/Certificate Courses – Post-Doctoral Fellowship (PDF) –

Post-Doctoral Certificate Courses (PDCC)

Seats – A total of 20 seats are available in these courses.

Post-Doctoral Fellowship (PDF): 9 seats

Post-Doctoral Certificate Courses (PDCC): 11 seats

If the Competent Authority issues any periodic directions, the number and distribution of seats may change. The sponsored seats won’t be transformed to general seats in the appropriate specialty if there are no acceptable applicants for them.

No reservations are observed for the super speciality courses of DM/MCh/Fellowship/PhD courses in this Institute, as per the ruling of the Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court of India in Writ Petition C No. 350/1998. 

Eligibility for admission to PDF & PDC courses – 

1. Candidates should be Indian Nationals. 
2. Candidates should have passed MD/MS/DNB degrees from any Institute/University recognized by the National Medical Commission (NMC). 
3. The abovementioned degree must be registered with the National Medical Commission/State Medical Council. 
4. Candidates should have completed the qualifying postgraduate course on or before June 30, 2023.

Sponsored Category:

In order to be admitted to the course in the discipline, candidates applying as sponsored candidates must meet the requirements listed below, which have been duly certified by their sponsoring authority employer. The sponsorship certificate (Annexure-V) must be submitted by the candidate as a scanned document. 

Applicants are allowed to upload a scanned copy of the sponsorship certificate (.jpg / pdf) using their user id and password on or before 12.05.2023 (Friday) 1 PM in the database if they are unable to upload the sponsorship certificate at the time of submission of the online application. Such applicants’ applications will be immediately rejected if the database for their scanned copies is not updated, and no hall ticket will be prepared or granted. 

The supported certificate must state that the following is true: 

1. That the candidate is a permanent or regular employee of the deputing/sponsoring Authority and should have been working for at least the last three years (on or before June 30 2023). 
2. The candidate would be properly engaged by the deputing/sponsoring Authority to work for at least five years in the speciality in which they received training at JIPMER, Puducherry, after completing their training there. 
3. And that throughout the duration of their course, JIPMER Puducherry will not be responsible for paying any financial obligations in the form of emoluments, stipends, or other compensation; this will be the sponsoring Authority’s duty. 
4. Sponsorship of candidates holding tenure appointments (like house job, Junior or Senior Residency, adhoc or contract or honorary appointment against a leave vacancy) shall NOT be accepted. Sponsorship of any candidate by private hospitals, institutes or nursing homes is not accepted. The sponsoring Institute should not nominate more than one candidate for each speciality specified in the distribution of seats in the Discipline. (Page No: 6 & 7). 

Only the following will be approved as candidate sponsors or deputies: 

1. Departments or institutions of the federal or state governments 
2. Central or State Government Autonomous Bodies 
3. Institutions of higher learning in the public sector that are accredited by the MCI. When a candidate is sponsored or deputed by a medical college that is affiliated with a university and is approved by the National Medical Commission. Only a sponsorship or deputation certificate signed by the Principal of the relevant medical college is acceptable.

Sponsored/Deputed candidates must take the common entrance examination and pass in order to be selected. Candidates must make their own arrangements for lodging during the duration of their course if they are accepted for admission to any JIPMER course. 

The sponsored candidates who are admitted will only have one month from the date of document verification to present sponsorship, relieving, study leave, or NOC certifications. Under no circumstances will there be another extension.

Exam specifics: The following ten Indian cities are being considered as potential locations for the exams: 

Only three exam cities are available to applicants. Exam City allocation will follow the applicant’s order of preference during online registration in a first-come, first-served fashion. MUMBAI 

Under no circumstances will the candidate’s request for a change of centre be taken into consideration. The preferred exam city is simply a guide and is subject to change. The final say on the central allotment belongs to JIPMER. Let’s say a city hosting an exam is cancelled because not enough candidates are present there to meet the requirement. In that situation, JIPMER will reassign candidates who selected that city to any other centre or city that is open. Candidates will be required to abide by it. 

Any exam city may be dropped at any time due to unforeseeable events. With proper notification via the website or text message, JIPMER is able to assign a new exam city all at once.

 Summary of examination pattern 

1- Mode Of Examinatiion: Computer-Based Test (CBT) [Online] 

2- Duration of Examination:  1½ hours (One hour and thirty minutes)

3- Date of Examination: Sunday, 28th MAY 2023

4- Number of Shifts: 1 (One)

5- Timing of Examination: 9 AM to 10:30 AM

6- Location of Examination:  Tentatively 10 cities in India

7-  Language of Paper:  English 

8- Type of Examination: Objective Type

9- Number of Questions:  One Paper of 100 (One Hundred) Questions 

10- Type of Objective Questions : Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

11- Syllabus: From the concerned Discipline and related fields of qualifying examination as mentioned on page no. 15.

12- Marking Scheme: Correct answer : +4 Incorrect answer : – 1 Unanswered: 0

13- Cut-Off Percentage:  Minimum Percentage (50%) 

14- Method of determining merit : Overall merit By Percentages scores

15- Method of resolving ties :In the following order. Less Negative Marks Seniority by age 

Hall Ticket – 

Hall tickets for the entrance exam can be downloaded starting at 11 AM on Thursday, May 18, 2023. The following information will be on the hall ticket: 

1. The candidate’s entered name and birthdate on the application 
2. The candidate’s uploaded photo and signature 
3. The designated examination city and the roll number

 Only those who present the original and photocopy of their identity evidence, as well as their hall ticket, will be permitted to take the entrance exam. 

It is definitely forbidden for candidates to write anything on the hall ticket or the identity card photocopy. 

This Hall Ticket is granted with the understanding that the candidature would be revoked if eligibility is discovered at any point.

Mock test: 

It is recommended that candidates take the mock test for an online examination that is computer-based. (PDF & PDCC Course Entrance Examination) The mock exam and Candidate Experience video link will be accessible on www.jipmer.edu.in.

 Results will be announced, along with the merit list, on or before Friday, June 9, 2023, according to a tentative schedule posted on the JIPMER website (www.jipmer.edu.in). Less than the required percentage of candidates will not be given consideration for admission, and their names will not appear on the Merit List. There won’t be any individual letters issued to the chosen applicants or others on the waiting list. 

Overview of the admissions procedure (following the verification of the candidates’ uploaded documents) – 

1. Reporting to JIPMER,
2. Biometric confirmation 
3. Photo/Image Verification
4. Submission of original certificates and certificate verification 
5. If all of the credentials are valid, an admission order will be given based on the student’s performance in the relevant fellowship courses. Candidates will be removed from the merit list if they are absent on the day of certificate verification. 

The chosen candidates must provide their authentic credentials on the same day that they pay the admissions fee in the academic section. (Or in accordance with the directives issued by relevant JIPMER officials). 

Admission fees: PDF & PDC courses –

All dental colleges whose postgraduate (PG) course renewals are due are required to submit their applications for renewal approval by April 30, 2023, according to a recent regulation from the Dental Council of India (DCI). An Act of Parliament established the DCI to oversee the dental profession and uphold the nation’s highest standards for dental education. The DCI has urged all dental colleges to make sure they follow the renewal procedure in accordance with their statutory obligations, since failing to do so might have negative effects on both the colleges and their students.

The DCI has made it clear that it is its job to do all possible to uphold the finest standards of dental education in the nation. The DCI Act and Regulations promulgated thereunder, as well as the provisions of Sections 10, 10A, and 10B of the Dentists Act, 1948, are hence standards that must be met before a dental qualification is regarded as genuine. In order to avoid delays in the processing of renewal requests, it is crucial that all dental colleges apply for renewal permission as soon as possible.

The DCI has listed a number of goals that it hopes to accomplish through its regulatory position. These goals include maintaining uniform standards for dental education at both the undergraduate and graduate levels, inspecting and visiting dental colleges to request permission to start new courses or increase the number of seats, prescribing uniform curricula for the training of dentists, dental hygienists, and dental mechanics, and supervising all dental institutions to ensure that they uphold the established standards.

Dental colleges must abide by the DCI’s regulations given the crucial role dental education plays in the growth of the nation’s healthcare system. Applications for the renewal of MDS courses may not be received if the renewal process is not followed, and the DCI will not be held liable for any delays or repercussions that occur from non-compliance.

Dental colleges should heed the DCI’s instructions carefully and make every effort to complete the renewal process on time. By doing this, they will not only uphold the legitimacy of their credentials but also help to keep the nation’s dental education at a high standard.